Normally, whenever I take an action that involves paying for an effect that is any more complicated than tapping lands, I declare that I'm floating mana. For instance:
- When I tap Priest of Titania with 3 other elves on the battlefield (for a total mana cost of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana" before I make any plays and use this mana.
- Even if I'm using Llanowar Elves to pay for a 1-drop, I declare how I'm floating mana.
One time, I was accused of cheating because of this habit. I tapped my Llanowar Elves and said "I float 1 to play Quirion Ranger", and I was accused of cheating, because I "didn't have 1 floating after that play".
It would seem that the person I was playing against had taken "floating mana" to refer exclusively to mana that was left over after paying a mana cost.
Have I been doing it wrong all along? Has my talk about "floating mana" before I pay costs been a miscommunication all this time?
I'm asking this now because I recently came across this passage whilst reading the comp rules:
106.4a If a player passes priority (see rule 116) while there is mana in his or her mana pool, that player announces what mana is there. If any mana remains in a player’s mana pool after he or she spends mana to pay a cost, that player announces what mana is still there.
Does that mean that talking about my "floating mana" communicates that I'm passing priority?