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I open 1D -- Partner 1S -- I bid 2C (my holding was xx-Kx-AQTxx-AQxx) -- Partner bids 2D --

What do I bid, and why? (since I have to respond when partner keeps changing suit and no NT has been yet bid)

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2 Answers 2

up vote -1 down vote accepted

Your partner's 2D bid was a "sign-off" bid, because it mentioned your diamonds for a second time (between the two of you), without raising to 3D, thereby allowing you to pass.

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@Aryabhata: I just deleted the second sentence, since I confused myself and others. Will you reverse the downvote? –  Tom Au Sep 30 '13 at 19:51
    
@TomAu: I didn't downvote your answer. –  Aryabhata Sep 30 '13 at 19:52
    
Ah. That was a carelessness on my side... somehow I remembered "keeps changing suits" instead of "keeps bidding unbid previously suits" - Thanks! –  user5185 Dec 25 '13 at 5:10

Your 2C was nonforcing; partner could have passed 2C but instead showed a preference for your first suit with 2D. This is to play. Depending on your responding style, partner could have as little as

KTxxx
xxxx
xx
xx

or as much as

KQxx
Qxx
Jxx
xxx

In any case, you don't have quite enough to take another bid and should pass. To bid again, you should have at least reversing strength (e.g.

Kx
Kx
AQTxx
AQxx

which in my opinion is not quite enough to make a game-forcing jump-shift after partner responds).

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1  
On your last example, open 1D, then jump to 2NT after partner bids 1 of a major. –  user3264 Sep 29 '13 at 13:25
1  
@woodchips That's a reasonable treatment, though not universal. –  ruds Sep 30 '13 at 2:28
    
@woodchips: FYI: An opening bid poll for this on bridgewinners: bridgewinners.com/article/view/bidding-problem-2690 .You might need to register and vote to see the results. As of now 1D has 22, while 1NT has 12. –  Aryabhata Oct 4 '13 at 17:37

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