Partner deals and opens 1 club. I have 8 points and 7 diamonds. Opponent has passed. Should I say 3 diamonds to show 7 card suit?

  • Which bidding system is in use?
    – aramis
    Jun 4, 2014 at 7:58
  • You haven't told us enough about the rest of your hand for us to give a good answer. I presume that most of your strength is in diamonds, but maybe it's not the case. For all I know, you may have something like ♠A 3 2 ♥K J 2 ♦ T 9 7 5 4 3 2 ♣ ---, in which case I might not bid diamonds, but perhaps 1NT.
    – Tom Au
    Jun 6, 2014 at 0:37

2 Answers 2


What do you mean 8 points? If you have 8 high-card points and 7 diamonds, your hand is probably too strong for a preemptive jump, especially if most of your points are in your long suit. With a fantastic hand like

     ♠ 3 2   ♥ 2   ♦ A K J 9 7 5 4   ♣ 4 3 2

you could easily have 3NT opposite a minimum opening such as

     ♠ A 5 4   ♥ Q 10 4 3   ♦ Q 2   ♣ A 7 6 5

With such a nice hand, your main concern should be whether your partner has major suit stoppers.

In a standard american (or 2/1 game forcing) system, you should start by bidding 1♦, and then letting the auction develop. If your partner rebids 1NT (showing a balanced minimum with stoppers in both majors), you could conceivably raise to 2NT or even 3NT, depending on the type of scoring and your partnership style.

If you have 8 points including distribution, e.g.

     ♠ 3 2   ♥ 2   ♦ A J 9 7 6 5 3   ♣ 4 3 2

then a preemptive raise is more reasonable, depending on your partnership agreements.

  • Don't be absurd! That is a miracle hand and I would be embarrassed to even admit playing a contract of 3NT. If partner and I somehow stumbled into it through a misunderstanding, I would claim we actually set opponents in 3NT after I led a diamond than admit w bid and made it. Jun 6, 2014 at 0:10
  • @PieterGeerkens The point is that it's possible to have game opposite a minimum opener. This means that, at the very least, you should be concerned about the possibility that partner has a few extras. A preemptive jump makes partner unlikely to continue unless they have a rock-crusher. It's better to bid 1♦ and let the auction develop.
    – Jim Belk
    Jun 6, 2014 at 1:18
  • With a reasonably solid seven card diamond suit (say AQJXxxx or better), there is a real chance for "gambling" 3NT game, if opener has the other three suits stopped. And while it's more likely to happen if opener's point count is in the mid to high teens, that does not rule out it happening with a mininum.
    – Tom Au
    Jun 8, 2014 at 1:06

You should better keep that bid (3 diamonds) for splinter (ie club fit and singleton or void in diamonds).

Another question you should answer is: "What does 2d mean?". It should promise 6-card diamonds but: Some play that it's weak (0-5HCP), some others (including myself) play that it's invitational (9-11), some others play that it's strong (13+) and finally some play it as really strong (16+).

If you play that 2d is invitational and your holding is AQJxxxx or AKxxxxx then I would try 2d (especially in IMPs).

The most logic approach however is to bid 1d, and then 2d and then 3d.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .