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Player A and Player B are both fairly well-off and developed players. A, however, does not have much cash on hand. A lands on B's developed property.

  • He has to sell some of his buildings to pay the debt. On one of his monopolies, he has hotels. Can he sell the hotel for the price of five houses immediately? Or can he only get the equivalent price of one house by selling "all the hotels...at once"? What does "one at a time" mean in the official rule book — that he would have to wait over five turns to sell the whole thing, and therefore cannot do this? Suppose he has several houses on each property of another of his monopolies — can he only sell one, or can he sell all of them?
  • After A mortgages his properties, can he then turn the properties over to his creditor to pay the debt? I have always been under the impression that property could be handed over to the creditor in order to pay debts, at the cash value of the purchase price — and since the rule book says trades are fair game, I suppose a debtor and creditor could agree to trade property for cash that is immediately returned to the creditor, but I'm not sure.
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The rules:

House and hotels may be sold back to the Bank at any time for one-half the price paid for them.

All houses on one color-group must be sold one by one, evenly, in reverse of the manner in which they were erected.

All hotels on one color-group may be sold at once, or they may be sold one house at a time (one hotel equals five houses), evenly, in reverse of the manner in which they were erected.

What one by one here means is that you cannot sell a house from 1 property in a color group if another property in that color group already has more houses. You must sell evenly, just like you must build evenly. You can sell a hotel completely for the price of half of 5 houses, but you can't leave hotels on the other properties in the color group if you do that; they would need to be sold down to at most 1 house each.

  1. A mortgaged property can be traded just like an unmortgaged property can, but that's up to the creditor to agree to that. The debtor cannot automatically use the mortgaged property instead of cash to pay rent.
  • "you cannot sell 2 houses (or a hotel) from 1 property in a color group while leaving the others untouched." I'm not sure about this: suppose you had a hotel on one property of a 3-property monopoly and four houses on the other two properties; would it really be illegal to sell two of the hotel's houses? And by "cannot automatically", do you mean that it is legal to use mortgaged and unmortaged property to pay debts, but the creditor can choose what amount of the debt the property will cover? – Monoprice Oct 16 '14 at 0:10
  • @Monoprice Sorry, that sentence was unclear. You can do just what you suggest; you just can't do it if you had an equal number of houses to start with. I will edit for clarification. It is not legal to use any property to pay debts directly, but the debtor can always agree to any deal where you give him property for some amount of money (and then that money would be used immediately to pay him; so it's the same for both of you as if you used the property to pay). – GendoIkari Oct 16 '14 at 1:38
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    Officially, it is illegal to use property in lieu of a debt -- if you land on a property, you MUST pay in cash or are bankrupt. Many people play with a house rule allowing the creditor to accept property in lieu of some or all of a debt, however. If the creditor has enough cash, he could buy the property from the debtor for that cash, allowing the debtor to pay cash (equivalent to accepting the property, just more fiddly); the house rule is only relevant if neither the debtor nor the creditor have much cash on hand. – Chris Dodd Oct 18 '14 at 5:57

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