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[Player 1] has an A♠️ & a 2♥️ as their hole cards. [Player 2] holds a 3♣️ & a Queen♠️.The community cards are as follows : 3♠️,J♦️,J♣️,8♥️,8♦️ Please explain to me why player 1 thinks he beats player 2 on a high card when player 2 clearly has a 2 pair (3's & J's)?

marked as duplicate by GendoIkari, Joe W, ikegami, Nij, Benjamin Cosman Dec 11 '17 at 7:25

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While we can´t read minds, in this game player 1 wins because the best hand either player can make is two pair with Jacks and 8s (all from the community), so winner gets decided by the remaining high card. And player 1's Ace is higher than player 2's Queen.

Player 2 having 2 pair doesn't help him win; Player 1 also has 2 pair by using only the community cards; and that's a better 2-pair than player 2 can get from his hand cards. (Which means player 2 also gets the better 2 pair from the table)

  • Thanks Erik for the clarification, I guess I learned something new. LOL – user22679 Dec 10 '17 at 22:07
  • 1
    to clarify you make the best 5 card hand you can from the 7 you have available. You don't have to use both of your hole cards. you can use one or even both. You might see in poker slang this situation being referred to as 'counterfeiting. The pair of 3's was counterfeited by the 8s. So the best 2 hands were AJJ88 and QJJ88. The pair of 3s did not matter. – StartPlayer Dec 11 '17 at 10:22

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