It's a 16 pointer, with five good spades:
An expert (Frank Stewart) opined in a column that he would always prefer a one spade opening to a 1NT opening. I emailed him and said that I agreed with him for rubber bridge (1 spade is the safer bid), but thought that 1NT should be the opening bid for duplicate, aiming for a NT contract over a spade contract (Stewart disagreed with me in his reply).
If I had only four spades and the bidding sequence were something like me; one of a minor), opponent passes, partner bids one spade, I would prefer a spade contract to a NT contract even in duplicate. The flexibility given by the (presumed)four card spade suits in both hands might yield an extra spade trick. But opening with the above, I'm looking at a 5-3 in spades (which could be a 5-2 or a 5-4). But in any event, my five spades are "long," which suggests to me that I would probably make as high a NT contract as a spade contract. In this case, the 10 point differential for NT looms large in duplicate (it could be the difference between top vs. middle, middle vs. bottom, or even top vs. bottom). But it is meaningless in rubber.
Is there a way to determine who is more nearly correct? For instance, is there a body of expert literature that leans decisively in favor of either one spade or 1NT, or differentiates between rubber and duplicate in this case? Or would this be determined by a quantitative analysis of match results where similar hands ended up in either spade or NT contracts?