Only us vulnerable at rubber, LHO opens 1 heart. Partner doubles, RHO passes, and I have (s)AQJ9 (h) Q42 (d) JT4 (c)853. In this situation, I would "jump" the bidding one level to two spades, because a bid of only one spade could imply that I have xxxx or even xxx in spades and a "bust" (or nearly so) otherwise.
Change my spades to diamonds, and an expert (Frank Stewart) recommends that I hold back at two diamonds, rather than "jump" the level to three diamonds, even though I have ten high card points. Is this because my "jump" takes me to the three level rather than two?
And is "level" the reason that Stewart recommends bidding a "craven" 2 clubs with (s)943 (h) A52 (d) AQJ (c)8732, following LHO's bid of one spade, partner's takeout double, and RHO's pass? Because my "natural" bid suit is clubs, but I don't want to bid three clubs with my weak holding despite my 11 points? But if my clubs were spades (and LHO had opened, say, one heart), I would "jump" the level to 2 spades (not one spade), right?