This is a followup to a previous question.
Neither vulnerable, I opened 2NT after two passes with the following: ♠ AKQ ♡ Q72 ♢AK872 ♣ Q8. This is a "conventional" holding with the a weak spot in clubs.
An answer to the other question showed that partner should have passed with his actual holding, but Stayman was the correct bid if his hand were upgraded by adding at least another jack, giving him something like ♠ J842 ♡JT95 ♢QJ ♣ 732. So let's say this was the case.
My responses to Stayman would be the following: I would bid spades or hearts if I had four of either major. With my actual hand, I would bid three diamonds, showing five of the suit. I would bid 3NT with either a 3-3-4-3 shape (four diamonds), or long clubs.
The problem was that left hand opponent had AKxxxxx of clubs and AK of hearts, and was able to run nine tricks. Give me Q82 of clubs instead of Q8, I would have had third round control of clubs, taken the queen, seven tricks in the "pointed" suits (diamonds split 2-2), and only gone down one, instead of "many." IMHO, partner should have been inclined to play in diamonds since he had four and my bid would indicate five (with a stronger hand, partner could raise to five diamonds).
So after a 2NT bid, should the partners probe for alternatives using Stayman (or other means) and plan an escape suit unless responder is so balanced that 3NT is clearly indicated?
Edit: I just realized that the convention I might want is called "Puppet Stayman". It may or may not work for this hand, but it could help others.