Normally, whenever I take an action that involves paying for an effect that is any more complicated than tapping lands, I declare that I'm floating mana. For instance:

* When I tap [mtg:Priest of Titania] with 3 other elves on the battlefield (for a total mana cost of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana" before I make any plays and use this mana.
* Even if I'm using [mtg:Llanowar Elves] to pay for a 1-drop, I declare how I'm floating mana.

One time, I was accused of cheating because of this habit. I tapped my [mtg:Llanowar Elves ] and said "I float 1 to play [mtg:Quirion Ranger]", and I was accused of cheating, because I "didn't have 1 floating after that play".

It would seem that the person I was playing against had taken "floating mana" to refer exclusively to mana that was left over **after** paying a mana cost.

Have I been doing it wrong all along? Has my talk about "floating mana" before I pay costs been a miscommunication all this time?

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I'm asking this now because I recently came across this passage whilst reading the comp rules:

> 106.4a If a player passes priority (see rule 116) while there is mana in his or her mana pool, that player announces what mana is there. If
> any mana remains in a player’s mana pool after he or she spends mana
> to pay a cost, that player announces what mana is still there.

Does that mean that talking about my "floating mana" communicates that I'm passing priority?