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2 Edited for grammar, capitalisation, etc and general expression. Also, removed the `code formatting` from "floating mana", because it isn't code.
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What does "float mana" typically mean?

Normally, Wheneverwhenever I take an action that involves paying for an effect that is any more complicated than tapping lands, I declare that I'm floating mana.

  For instance: When I tap priest of titania with 3 other elves on the battlefield(for a total of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana." before I make any plays and use this mana.

Or even If I'm using llanowar elves to pay for a 1-drop , I declare how I'm floating mana.

  • When I tap Priest of Titania with 3 other elves on the battlefield (for a total mana cost of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana" before I make any plays and use this mana.
  • Even if I'm using Llanowar Elves to pay for a 1-drop, I declare how I'm floating mana.

There has been aOne time, where I have beenwas accused of cheating because of this habit.

What happened was I tapped my llanowar elvesLlanowar Elves and said "I float 1 to play quirion rangerQuirion Ranger", and I was accused of cheating, because "I didn'tI "didn't have 1 floating after that play".

It would seem that the person I was playing against had taken "floating mana" to refer exclusively tooto mana that was left over after I payedpaying a mana cost.

Have I been doing it wrong all along? hasHas my talk about "floating mana""floating mana" before I pay costs been a miscommunication hazard all this time?


I'm asking this now, because I have recently came across this passage whenwhilst reading the comp rules:

106.4a If a player passes priority (see rule 116) while there is mana in his or her mana pool, that player announces what mana is there. If any mana remains in a player’s mana pool after he or she spends mana to pay a cost, that player announces what mana is still there.

Does that mean that talking about my "floating mana""floating mana" communicates that I'm passing priority?

What does "float mana" typically mean

Normally, Whenever I take an action that involves paying for an effect that is any more complicated than tapping lands, I declare that I'm floating mana.

  For instance: When I tap priest of titania with 3 other elves on the battlefield(for a total of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana." before I make any plays and use this mana.

Or even If I'm using llanowar elves to pay for a 1-drop , I declare how I'm floating mana.

There has been a time, where I have been accused of cheating because of this habit.

What happened was I tapped my llanowar elves and said "I float 1 to play quirion ranger", and I was accused of cheating, because "I didn't have 1 floating after that play".

It would seem that the person I was playing against had taken "floating mana" to refer exclusively too mana that was left over after I payed a mana cost.

Have I been doing it wrong all along? has my talk about "floating mana" before I pay costs been a miscommunication hazard all this time?


I'm asking this now, because I have recently came across this passage when reading the comp rules:

106.4a If a player passes priority (see rule 116) while there is mana in his or her mana pool, that player announces what mana is there. If any mana remains in a player’s mana pool after he or she spends mana to pay a cost, that player announces what mana is still there.

Does that mean that talking about my "floating mana" communicates that I'm passing priority?

What does "float mana" typically mean?

Normally, whenever I take an action that involves paying for an effect that is any more complicated than tapping lands, I declare that I'm floating mana. For instance:

  • When I tap Priest of Titania with 3 other elves on the battlefield (for a total mana cost of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana" before I make any plays and use this mana.
  • Even if I'm using Llanowar Elves to pay for a 1-drop, I declare how I'm floating mana.

One time, I was accused of cheating because of this habit. I tapped my Llanowar Elves and said "I float 1 to play Quirion Ranger", and I was accused of cheating, because I "didn't have 1 floating after that play".

It would seem that the person I was playing against had taken "floating mana" to refer exclusively to mana that was left over after paying a mana cost.

Have I been doing it wrong all along? Has my talk about "floating mana" before I pay costs been a miscommunication all this time?


I'm asking this now because I recently came across this passage whilst reading the comp rules:

106.4a If a player passes priority (see rule 116) while there is mana in his or her mana pool, that player announces what mana is there. If any mana remains in a player’s mana pool after he or she spends mana to pay a cost, that player announces what mana is still there.

Does that mean that talking about my "floating mana" communicates that I'm passing priority?

1
source | link

What does "float mana" typically mean

Normally, Whenever I take an action that involves paying for an effect that is any more complicated than tapping lands, I declare that I'm floating mana.

For instance: When I tap priest of titania with 3 other elves on the battlefield(for a total of 4), than I will typically say "I float 4 mana." before I make any plays and use this mana.

Or even If I'm using llanowar elves to pay for a 1-drop , I declare how I'm floating mana.

There has been a time, where I have been accused of cheating because of this habit.

What happened was I tapped my llanowar elves and said "I float 1 to play quirion ranger", and I was accused of cheating, because "I didn't have 1 floating after that play".

It would seem that the person I was playing against had taken "floating mana" to refer exclusively too mana that was left over after I payed a mana cost.

Have I been doing it wrong all along? has my talk about "floating mana" before I pay costs been a miscommunication hazard all this time?


I'm asking this now, because I have recently came across this passage when reading the comp rules:

106.4a If a player passes priority (see rule 116) while there is mana in his or her mana pool, that player announces what mana is there. If any mana remains in a player’s mana pool after he or she spends mana to pay a cost, that player announces what mana is still there.

Does that mean that talking about my "floating mana" communicates that I'm passing priority?