The advantage of a 4-4 trump fit is that you can ruff in either hand, and use the other one as the master hand. But if one or both partners have little ruffing value, then might that advantage be minimal?
Neither vulnerable, South dealt and bid 1NT. West passed, and you, North, hold:
(s) AJ4 (h) KJ32 (d) J63 (c) 953.
The columnist wrote that: "North could have judged to bid 3NT with his flat hand instead of using Stayman; South probably would have made nine tricks." I concur.
But North bid 2 clubs, South 2 spades North 3NT and South bid 4 hearts, inferring that North had four hearts.
North knows that his hand has a 4-3-3-3 shape, and can infer that South's hand is likely 4-4-3-2 or 4-3-3-3, with 5-3-3-2 being the other main possibility. Does it make sense under the circumstances for North to avoid Stayman since the likely ruffing gains are minimal? Or should South have left North in 3NT inferring that North had 3-4 in the majors, and 3-3, or possibly 2-4/or 4-2 in the minors?